Re: TI-M: Yet another integral question...


[Prev][Next][Index][Thread]

Re: TI-M: Yet another integral question...




In a message dated 10/3/00 4:43:46 AM Mountain Daylight Time, 
JasonScho@aol.com writes:

> fnInt(y, x) = fnInt(y * dx/dt, t)
>                 = fnInt(-25 * (cos(t) + (t - 2) * sin(t) - 1) * (cos(t) + 
(t -
>  
>  2) * sin(t)), t)
>  
>  I'm sure you can finish it from here.

That just doesn't make sense to me...if I was trying to find the integral of 
y(t) dx, that would be fine, but I'm trying to find (err...approximate) the 
integral of f(t) dt where f(t) = y( x^-1(t) ) and x^-1(t) is the inverse of 
the x(t).  These two integrals just don't seem the same to me...am I missing 
something?

JayEll