Re: TI-M: WOW!!!
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Re: TI-M: WOW!!!
This is a flawed proof... :)
at the point where you say (a+b)(a-b) = b*(a-b) implies
a+b = b you are brushing over the step where you divide
by (a-b) and we know (a-b) = (a-a) = 0 thus you are really
dividing by 0...
>
> One small suggestion.. turn your email off of html..
>
> one of the proofs that 1=2.
>
> a=b
> a^2 = a*b
> a^2 - b^2 = a*b - b^2
> (a+b)(a-b) = b*(a-b)
> a+b = b
> b+b = b
> 2b = b
> 2=1
>
> there is another proof that uses logarithms, but I dont remember it offhand.
> what is your derivitive proof one? I dont think i have seen a proof with
> derivitives...
> garth
>
> >That's not what I posted for, though. Does any one have a mathematically
> legal way to
> > set 1=2? I have one using derivitves and cancelling the X out, but it's
> kinda pathetic.
> > In fact i need to find it for AP class, my class does things like Mindtrap
> (a good game
> > for those who haven't played it) when we're bored. Our teacher likes math
> puzzles,
> > too.
> >
> > Mark Hazard
>
>
>
>
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